PK0-005 — CompTIA Project+
CompTIA

CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) Practice Questions

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102 questions
2026-06-14 updated
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Domain coverage

  • Project Management Concepts (33%)
  • Project Life Cycle Phases (30%)
  • Tools and Documentation (19%)
  • Basics of IT and Governance (18%)

Sample Questions (11 of 102 shown)

Q1
A project manager is working on an existing, large, complex project that involves regulatory and environmental considerations. The development of a detailed project plan will be critical. Which of the following should the project manager do first?
  1. Review the project charter.
  2. Start the process of engaging the stakeholders.
  3. Arrange a kickoff meeting.
  4. Evaluate potential risks.
✓ Correct Answer: A
For a large, complex project with regulatory and environmental considerations, the first step before developing a detailed project plan is to review the project charter. The charter provides the formal authorization of the project, defines objectives, identifies stakeholders, and sets the high-level scope and constraints.
Q2
A client provides a project plan to the assigned project manager and suggests that the project manager and team just need to execute the plan. Upon further investigation, the document contains: Purpose, Scope of work, Location of work, Period of performance, Deliverables schedule, Applicable standards, Acceptance criteria, Special requirements, and Payment schedule. Which of the following documents did the client provide to the project manager?
  1. RFP
  2. WBS
  3. SLA
  4. SOW
✓ Correct Answer: D
The list of contents is a classic and comprehensive outline for a Statement of Work (SOW). An SOW is a formal document that describes the entire scope of a project, including its objectives, deliverables, standards, schedule, and all other key requirements.
Q3
During a functional validation exercise, two end users request changes to the product that cannot be implemented without altering the already constrained project budget. The project manager convinces the end users to simplify the change request so it can be accomplished. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques did the project manager use?
  1. Collaborating
  2. Smoothing
  3. Avoiding
  4. Compromising
✓ Correct Answer: D
Compromising occurs when each party gives up something to reach an acceptable solution. The end users reduced the scope of their change request, and the PM accepted a simplified version that fits the budget. Both sides made concessions.
Q4
A project team was instructed to refurbish old desktops. The following provides the details of the issues observed: Old OS - 78 occurrences; Missing Peripherals - 45 occurrences; Monitor Damage - 5 occurrences. Which of the following issues should be addressed FIRST?
  1. Replace missing peripherals because this process can be easy and less costly.
  2. An old operating system issue has the most amount of occurrences.
  3. Damage to the monitor has the highest percentage.
  4. Address each issue as discovered to avoid rework.
✓ Correct Answer: B
The chart provided is a Pareto chart, which follows the 80/20 rule: focus on the issues that occur most frequently because they have the greatest impact. The old operating system problem has 78 occurrences, far more than any other issue.
Q5
A project manager is taking notes along with gathering feedback about a prior project in order to consider known issues with a project enhancement. Which of the following best describes the plan that the project team is working on?
  1. A plan for capturing issues and conflicts in a project's knowledge base
  2. A plan for avoiding potential issues that may arise during project execution
  3. A plan for documenting the outcomes of the project
  4. A plan for addressing and resolving identified issues once the project has been completed
✓ Correct Answer: A
This tests knowledge of lessons learned and organizational process assets. The PM is reviewing a prior project's notes and feedback to understand known issues before working on a project enhancement, capturing issues in a knowledge base for reuse.
Q6
A company is starting a new implementation project. The stakeholders are reviewing RFP responses to help make a decision about which project management consulting firm to hire. Given the following information: Firm 1: $100,225 cost, 7 PMs, 12 yrs exp, 5 similar projects; Firm 2: $100,325 cost, 7 PMs, 6 yrs exp, 4 similar projects; Firm 3: $100,425 cost, 5 PMs, 11 yrs exp, 5 similar projects; Firm 4: $100,625 cost, 7 PMs, 12 yrs exp, 5 similar projects. Which of the following is the best consulting firm for the company to hire?
  1. Consulting firm 1
  2. Consulting firm 2
  3. Consulting firm 3
  4. Consulting firm 4
✓ Correct Answer: A
Firm 1 offers the lowest cost ($100,225) while maintaining top-tier experience (12 years), strong relevant experience (5 similar projects), and sufficient team size (7 PMs).
Q7
Which of the following best describes why a project manager would decide to sign a fixed-price contract with a vendor?
  1. The scope of the project deliverable is clearly defined
  2. There is a non-disclosure agreement in place
  3. There are multiple requirements for the product
  4. The PM wants to simplify the logistics of the required product
✓ Correct Answer: A
A fixed-price contract is suitable when the scope is well defined and stable. This shifts cost risk to the vendor, as they must deliver within the agreed-upon price.
Q8
You are coordinating a SaaS CRM migration. During UAT, users report intermittent SSO login failures that prevent testing the critical sales workflow. The PMO will review the issue log as evidence that blockers are being managed. Which issue statement best validates that this issue is documented with impact, owner, and next action?
  1. Issue: Intermittent SSO failures blocking UAT for ~40 users; Impact: UAT signoff may slip 3 days; Owner: IAM lead; Next action: schedule vendor troubleshooting call and retest by March 5.
  2. Issue: SSO is not working in UAT; Owner: IT team; Next action: investigate as soon as possible.
  3. Issue: Team closed 12 UAT tickets this week; Owner: PM; Next action: keep closing tickets to stay on track.
  4. Issue: UAT signoff is at risk due to SSO problems; Impact: schedule could slip; Next action: escalate to leadership.
✓ Correct Answer: A
The best validation artifact is an issue log entry that is immediately actionable and auditable. A clear issue statement names the problem, describes the specific project impact, assigns a single accountable owner, and defines the next action.
Q9
Halfway through an IT portal modernization project, the scope/schedule/cost baselines are approved. A business stakeholder requests adding multi-factor authentication (MFA). The technical lead estimates the change would add 120 hours of effort, increase cost by $18,000 (USD), and delay the go-live milestone by 2 weeks. Which TWO actions should the project manager take to evaluate and control this change?
  1. Instruct the team to start MFA development immediately to protect the original go-live date
  2. Update the schedule baseline now to reflect the new go-live date and inform stakeholders
  3. Perform an impact analysis against the approved scope, schedule, and cost baselines and document it in a formal change request
  4. Use management reserve to cover the additional cost and proceed without recording a change
  5. Submit the change request through the defined change control authority and rebaseline only if it is approved
  6. Tell the stakeholder the request is out of scope and move it directly to lessons learned
✓ Correct Answer: C, E
Change control starts by evaluating the requested change against the approved baselines to understand impact. The request should then follow the established approval path so the project only updates baselines when an authorized decision is made.
Q10
A project team is implementing a new IT service desk platform using a fixed-price SOW. During configuration, the vendor states that a "security hardening package" (extra role-based controls and audit log retention) is required to meet the organization's policy and submits a request for +$22,000 and +10 business days. Constraints: Go-live date cannot move; the contract requires written change orders approved by the CCB; the vendor claims the work is out of scope; your lead engineer believes it is included in the SOW. Which action best optimizes the outcome while meeting the constraints?
  1. Require a written change proposal, validate scope, then route a change order through the CCB
  2. Reject the request and instruct the vendor to proceed
  3. Escalate immediately to legal and withhold payment until resolved
  4. Approve the vendor request now to protect the go-live date
✓ Correct Answer: A
Vendor change requests and scope disputes should be handled through the contract's change-order and dispute processes. Getting the request in writing, confirming whether it is truly out of scope, and routing the decision through the CCB preserves governance and baselines.
Q11
A company is adapting its strategy almost every quarter, and the product might be different at the end of the project. Which of the following is the best methodology for the project manager to use?
  1. Scrum
  2. Extreme programming
  3. Waterfall
  4. Kanban
✓ Correct Answer: A
Scrum is best suited for projects where the strategy adapts frequently and the product evolves. It provides structured sprints with regular feedback loops, enabling the team to pivot when strategy changes.

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Frequently Asked Questions

Project+ is vendor-neutral and entry-level, requiring 6-12 months of hands-on project experience (not 3+ years like PMP). It covers both Agile and Waterfall, making it more flexible for IT environments. PMP is more advanced and requires a 4-year degree or equivalent. Our practice tests cover both methodologies so you're prepared for any question.

The exam focuses on small-to-medium-sized projects (typically 6-12 months, $100K-$1M budget) in IT contexts — infrastructure deployments, software implementations, cloud migrations, security upgrades. You won't be tested on large-scale construction or manufacturing projects. Our scenario questions mirror real IT project challenges.

Yes, CompTIA includes PBQs that require you to drag-and-drop project artifacts, match methodologies to scenarios, or interpret Gantt/burndown charts. Our practice engine includes PBQ simulators so you can practice these interactive question types before exam day.

Most candidates need 4-6 weeks of consistent study (1-1.5 hours/day) with 6-12 months of project experience. If you're new to project management, allow 8-10 weeks. Our study planner adapts to your schedule and tracks progress across all four domains, with extra focus on the heavy-weight Domain 1 (33%).

Project+ qualifies you for entry-level roles like IT Project Coordinator, Junior Project Manager, and Technical Project Lead. Many professionals earn Project+ first to prove foundational skills, then pursue PMP after gaining 3+ years of experience. Our practice tests prepare you for either path and include resume-ready project management terminology.

Yes, through Pearson VUE online proctoring. You'll need a quiet space, webcam, and stable internet. Our web-based practice tests simulate the online exam experience, so you can practice from home and be fully prepared for the real thing.

As of October 1, 2025, Project+ is no longer "good-for-life" — new cert holders enter a triennial renewal cycle (earn CEUs or retake the exam every 3 years). Our practice tests are updated for the current V5 exam and include a renewal guide to help you maintain your certification.

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Full Study Guide 66 topics, exam overview & domain breakdown Most Debated Topics Ranked by community disagreement Technical FAQ 15 community-vetted answers