ISACA
ISACA Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer (CDPSE) practice questions
- Questions
- 229
- Exam length
- 210 min
- Passing score
- 450
- Updated
- Instant feedback per question
- Explanation for every option
- Free, no signup
Domain coverage 3 domains
- Privacy Governance (34%)
- Privacy Architecture (36%)
- Data Lifecycle (30%)
Sample questions 23 of 229 shown
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Q1
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to complete a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?The PRIMARY reason to complete a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is to understand privacy risks (D). A PIA is a systematic process to identify, assess, and mitigate privacy risks before implementing a new project or system. Understanding risks is the foundational purpose. While regulatory compliance (A) is important, it's not the primary purpose. Establishing breach response procedures (B) and classifying personal data (C) are components of privacy management but not the main purpose of a PIA. -
Q2
Before executive leadership approves a new data privacy policy, it is MOST important to ensure:Before executive leadership approves a new data privacy policy, it is MOST important to ensure a legal review is conducted (D). Legal review ensures the policy complies with applicable laws and regulations (e.g., GDPR, CCPA, PIPL). Without legal review, the policy may be non-compliant or unenforceable. Training program (A), privacy committee (B), and distribution methodology (C) are important but come after legal review. -
Q3
Which of the following is a responsibility of the audit function in helping an organization address privacy compliance requirements?The audit function's responsibility in helping an organization address privacy compliance requirements is validating the privacy framework (B). The audit function provides independent assurance that the privacy framework is properly designed and operating effectively. Approving PIAs (A) is management's responsibility. Managing privacy notices (C) and establishing employee privacy rights (D) are also management responsibilities, not audit functions. -
Q4
An online retail company is trying to determine how to handle users’ data if they unsubscribe from marketing emails generated from the website. Which of the following is the BEST approach for handling personal data that has been restricted?The BEST approach for handling personal data that has been restricted (unsubscribe from marketing emails) is to remove users' information and accounts from the system (C). This ensures compliance with data minimization and storage limitation principles. Simply encrypting (A) or flagging (D) don't fully address the restriction. Referencing privacy policy (B) is a first step but not the complete solution. -
Q5
Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an organization-wide strategy to address data privacy risk?When developing an organization-wide strategy to address data privacy risk, the FIRST step should be to obtain executive support (A). Without executive support, privacy initiatives lack authority, resources, and organizational buy-in. Executive support is foundational to establishing a privacy program. Developing privacy policy (B), gathering legal requirements (C), and creating data inventory (D) are important but come after securing executive support. -
Q6
Which of the following should be established FIRST before authorizing remote access to a data store containing personal data?Before authorizing remote access to a data store containing personal data, a privacy policy (A) should be established FIRST. The privacy policy defines how personal data should be handled, protected, and accessed. Without a privacy policy, there's no framework for determining appropriate access controls. Network security standard (B), multi-factor authentication (C), and VPN (D) are technical controls that should be implemented in accordance with the privacy policy. -
Q7
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when an organization wants to store personal data in the cloud?The GREATEST concern when storing personal data in the cloud is the organization's potential legal liabilities related to the data (A). Cloud storage involves data residency, jurisdictional issues, and compliance with various privacy laws. Legal liabilities can result in fines, penalties, and reputational damage. Data recovery capabilities (B), security policies (C), and vulnerabilities (D) are important but secondary to legal compliance. -
Q8
Which of the following helps define data retention time is a stream-fed data lake that includes personal data?Privacy Impact Assessments (PIAs) help define data retention time in a stream-fed data lake that includes personal data (B). PIAs assess privacy risks and help determine appropriate retention periods based on legal requirements, business needs, and privacy principles. Information security assessments (A) focus on security, not privacy. Data privacy standards (C) provide guidelines but PIAs are more specific. Data lake configuration (D) is technical, not privacy-focused. -
Q9
As part of a major data discovery initiative to identify personal data across the organization, the project team has identified the proliferation of personal data held as unstructured data as a major risk. What should be done FIRST to address this situation?When personal data is held as unstructured data (a major risk), the FIRST step to address this situation is to identify who has access to sensitive unstructured data (C). Understanding access is critical for assessing privacy risk and implementing appropriate controls. Without knowing who has access, you can't properly protect the data. Identifying data at creation (A), classifying (B), and assigning owners (D) are subsequent steps after understanding access. -
Q10
Which of the following should be done FIRST to establish privacy by design when developing a contact-tracing application?To establish privacy by design when developing a contact-tracing application, the FIRST step is to conduct a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) (A). A PIA systematically identifies and addresses privacy risks from the beginning of the development process. This ensures privacy is built into the design rather than added later. Development environment review (B), identifying privacy controls (C), and differential privacy techniques (D) are important but come after the PIA. -
Q11
A software development organization with remote personnel has implemented a third-party virtualized workspace to allow the teams to collaborate. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?The GREATEST concern when a software development organization with remote personnel uses a third-party virtualized workspace is the lack of privacy awareness and training among remote personnel (D). Human error and lack of awareness are primary causes of privacy breaches. Without proper training, personnel may inadvertently expose personal data through the virtual workspace. Highly regulated jurisdiction (A) and data exfiltration risk (B) are concerns but secondary to human factors. Intellectual property classification (C) is not directly privacy-related. -
Q12
Which of the following is MOST important when designing application programming interfaces (APIs) that enable mobile device applications to access personal data?When designing APIs that enable mobile device applications to access personal data, user consent to share personal data (C) is MOST important. Consent is a fundamental privacy principle - users should have control over their personal data. Without proper consent, data sharing may violate privacy laws. User ability to select/filter data (A) is important but secondary to consent. Umbrella consent (B) is generally not compliant with privacy regulations. Unlimited retention (D) violates storage limitation principles. -
Q13
A migration of personal data involving a data source with outdated documentation has been approved by senior management. Which of the following should be done NEXT?After a migration of personal data involving a data source with outdated documentation has been approved, the NEXT step should be to review data flow post migration (A). This verifies that data was accurately and completely migrated, and that privacy controls are still effective. This is part of post-migration validation. Ensuring appropriate data classification (B) should be done before migration. Engaging external auditor (C) and checking documentation version history (D) may be helpful but are not the immediate next step. -
Q14
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of privacy incident response?The PRIMARY objective of privacy incident response is to mitigate the impact of privacy incidents (C). Privacy incidents (e.g., data breaches, unauthorized access) can cause harm to data subjects and the organization. The primary goal is to minimize this harm through timely detection, containment, and remediation. Notifying data subjects (A) is important but is part of mitigation. Reducing risk to lowest level (B) is unrealistic. Optimizing costs (D) is not the primary objective. -
Q15
An organization wants to ensure that endpoints are protected in line with the privacy policy. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration?When ensuring endpoints are protected in line with the privacy policy, the FIRST consideration should be hardening the operating systems of endpoint devices (D). OS hardening reduces the attack surface and prevents unauthorized access to personal data on endpoints. This is foundational to endpoint security. Detecting malicious access (A), network traffic filtering (B), and managing remote access (C) are important but come after OS hardening. -
Q16
When evaluating cloud-based services for backup, which of the following is MOST important to consider from a privacy regulation standpoint?When evaluating cloud-based services for backup, data residing in another country (B) is MOST important from a privacy regulation standpoint. Cross-border data transfers are heavily regulated (e.g., GDPR restricts transfers outside EU). Data residency affects compliance requirements, legal obligations, and data subject rights. Data classification (A), volume of data (C), and privacy training (D) are important but secondary to data residency compliance. -
Q17
An organization has a policy requiring the encryption of personal data if transmitted through email. Which of the following is the BEST control to ensure the effectiveness of this policy?The BEST control to ensure the effectiveness of a policy requiring encryption of personal data transmitted through email is to implement a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tool (B). DLP tools can automatically detect, monitor, and block unauthorized transmission of personal data, ensuring encryption policies are enforced. User awareness training (A) is important but relies on human compliance. Control self-assessments (C) and policy compliance attestation (D) are detective/confiming, not preventive. -
Q18
Which of the following is MOST important to include when defining an organization’s privacy requirements as part of a privacy program plan?When defining an organization's privacy requirements as part of a privacy program plan, privacy management governance (B) is MOST important to include. Governance defines the framework, roles, responsibilities, and accountability for privacy management. Without proper governance, privacy requirements lack ownership and enforcement. Data classification process (A), privacy protection infrastructure (C), and lessons learned (D) are components but secondary to governance. -
Q19
Which of the following is the BEST way to explain the difference between data privacy and data security?The BEST way to explain the difference between data privacy and data security is that data privacy protects the data subjects, while data security is about protecting critical assets (B). Data privacy focuses on the rights of individuals whose data is collected (data subjects), ensuring their data is handled according to their expectations and legal requirements. Data security focuses on protecting data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction - regardless of who the data subject is. -
Q20
Which of the following should trigger a review of an organization's privacy policy?A privacy steering committee adopting a new charter (D) should trigger a review of an organization's privacy policy. The privacy steering committee is responsible for overseeing privacy strategy and policy. A new charter may change privacy objectives, scope, or approach, necessitating policy updates. Backup procedure changes (A), DLP incident increases (B), and emerging technology implementation (C) may trigger policy review but are not as comprehensive as a steering committee charter change. -
Q21
A web-based payment service is adding a requirement for biometric authentication. Which risk factor is BEST mitigated by this practice?Adding biometric authentication to a web-based payment service BEST mitigates the risk of identity spoofing by unauthorized users (C). Biometric authentication provides strong proof of identity that is difficult to fake or steal (unlike passwords). This directly addresses the risk of unauthorized users impersonating legitimate users. User validation failures (A), zero-day attacks (B), and legal liability (D) are not directly mitigated by biometric authentication. -
Q22
Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when selecting a data sanitization method?The FIRST consideration when selecting a data sanitization method should be the storage type (D). Different storage types (magnetic disk, SSD, flash memory, optical media) require different sanitization methods to ensure complete data removal. What works for HDD may not work for SSD. Risk tolerance (A), implementation cost (B), and industry standards (C) are important but secondary to matching the method to the storage type. -
Q23
Which of the following is the MOST critical action for an organization prior to tracking user activity in its applications?The MOST critical action for an organization prior to tracking user activity in its applications is requesting users to read and accept the organization's privacy notice (D). This ensures transparency and obtains informed consent before data collection begins. This is a fundamental privacy principle. Providing notification (A), establishing data classification (B), and identifying user countries (C) are important but come after obtaining user consent/acceptance.
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Frequently asked questions
How is CDPSE different from CIPP or CIPM (IAPP certifications)?
CDPSE is engineering-focused; CIPP is law-focused; CIPM is program management-focused. CDPSE tests your ability to build technical privacy solutions—designing systems that implement privacy controls. CIPP tests your knowledge of privacy laws. For privacy engineers and architects, CDPSE provides the technical validation IAPP certifications do not.
Do I need to know specific privacy regulations (GDPR, CCPA) for CDPSE?
Yes, CDPSE tests your ability to translate regulatory requirements into technical controls. You need to understand what key regulations require (e.g., GDPR's data minimization principle) and how to implement those requirements technically (e.g., database schema design that collects only necessary fields). Our practice questions bridge regulation and implementation.
What technical background do I need for CDPSE?
CDPSE targets professionals with 2+ years of privacy engineering or architecture experience. Familiarity with enterprise IT architecture, security controls, and data management is expected. Strong candidates typically have backgrounds in security engineering, solution architecture, or data governance.
How long is the CDPSE exam, and how should I pace myself?
CDPSE is 3.5 hours for 120 questions, giving you approximately 1.75 minutes per question. Domain 2 (Privacy Architecture, 36%) and Domain 1 (Privacy Governance, 34%) together account for 70%—allocate study time accordingly. Our full-length practice exams simulate the exact timing to build pacing skills.
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Community-verified analysis of 31 questions from real test-taker discussions — 12 deep analyses and 20 FAQs.